MODEL QUESTION PAPER FOR THE LIMITED INSOLVENCY EXAMINATION -NOVEMBER-2018

MODEL QUESTION PAPER FOR THE LIMITED INSOLVENCY EXAMINATION
(w.e.f. 1st November, 2018)
1. Which of the following enactments was not amended as part of the Insolvency and
Bankruptcy Code, 2016?
a) The Customs Act, 1962
b) The Limitation Act, 1963
c) The Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007
d) The Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008
Ans. (b)

2. The management of the affairs of a corporate debtor undergoing corporate insolvency
resolution process vests in the________.
a) Interim Resolution Professional
b) Board of Directors
c) Committee of Creditors
d) Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India
Ans. (a)

3. Where the Committee of Creditors resolves to continue the interim resolution professional
as resolution professional under section 22 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, the
resolution needs to be passed a majority of not less than ___________ percent of voting share
of the financial creditors.
a) 50
b) 66
c) 75
d) 90
Ans.(b)

4. A resolution professional shall file an application to the adjudicating authority to extend the
period of fast track resolution beyond _________ days, if instructed to do so by a resolution
passed at a meeting of the committee of creditors.
a) 45
b) 90
c) 180
d) 270
Ans. (b)

5. The liquidator is required to communicate his decision of admission or rejection of claim
under section 14 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016the Insolvency and bankruptcy
Code, 2016 to
______________.
a) all creditors and the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India
b) the corporate debtor and the adjudicating authority
c) the adjudicating authority and the creditor concerned
d) the creditor concerned and the corporate debtor
Ans.(d)

6. A corporate debtor shall be deemed to have given a preference at a relevant time under the
Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 if it is given to a________ during the period
of________ years preceding the insolvency commencement date.
a) related party; two years
b) unrelated party; two years
c) related party; three years
d) unrelated party; three years
Ans. (a)

7. Under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, _______ may make an application for
avoidance of transactions to _________, if the terms of such transaction required exorbitant
payments to be made by __________.
a) Financial Creditor; IBBI; Liquidator
b) Committee of Creditors; Special Court; Corporate Debtor
c) Corporate Debtor; National Company Law Tribunal; Corporate Debtor
d) Resolution Professional; Adjudicating Authority; Corporate Debtor
Ans. (d)

8. Which of the following is an ‘excluded asset’ for the purposes of Part III of the Insolvency
and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 dealing with insolvency resolution and bankruptcy for individuals?
a) Unencumbered single dwelling unit irrespective of its value
b) Encumbered single dwelling unit irrespective of its value
c) Unencumbered single dwelling unit of prescribed value
d) Encumbered single dwelling unit of prescribed value
Ans. (c)

9. A creditor cannot apply in relation to any partnership debt owed to him for initiating an
insolvency resolution process against _______________.
a) the firm
b) any one partner of the firm
c) all partners of the firm
d) guarantor of the firm
Ans. (d)

10. In case a repayment plan comes to an end prematurely under Section 118 of the Insolvency
and bankruptcy Code, 2016, the resolution professional shall submit a report to the
Adjudicating Authority. Such report need not contain ___________.
a) the receipts and payments made in pursuance of the repayment plan
b) the reason for premature end of the repayment plan
c) the details of the creditors whose claims have not been fully satisfied
d) an application for initiation of bankruptcy of the person concerned
Ans. (d)

11. Who prepares a list of creditors of the bankrupt under Section 132 of the Insolvency and
Bankruptcy Code, 2016?
a) Bankruptcy Trustee
b) Official Liquidator
c) Adjudicating Authority
d) Bankrupt
Ans. (a)

12. An onerous property that a bankruptcy trustee may disclaim does not include _________.
a) a readily saleable property
b) an unsaleable property
c) an unprofitable contract
d) a property that may give rise to a claim
Ans. (a)

13. In a bankruptcy process, unsecured creditors rank __________.
a) in ascending order of the amount of debt due to them
b) in descending order of the amount of debt due to them
c) equally amongst themselves
d) in ascending order of the period of default of the debt
Ans. (c)

14. Which of the following is not a function of an Insolvency Professional Agency?
a) Redress the grievances against insolvency professionals who are its members
b) Lay down standards of professional conduct for its members
c) Monitor the performance of its members
d) Register the insolvency professionals who are its members
Ans. (d)

15. Any information utility which is aggrieved by an order of the Insolvency and
Bankruptcy Board of India may prefer an appeal to____________.
a) High Court of competent jurisdiction
b) National Company Law Tribunal
c) Supreme Court
d) National Company Law Appellate Tribunal
Ans. (d)

16. Which of the following members of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India may
be included as Members of the Disciplinary Committee?
a) Independent members
b) Whole-time members
c) Executive members
d) Nominee members
Ans. (b)

17. An appeal may be filed to the Supreme Court against an order of the NCLAT on a question
of _______ arising out of such order.
a) law
b) fact
c) process
d) admissibility of evidence
Ans. (a)

18. An officer of a corporate debtor is liable for punishment under Section 68 of the Insolvency
and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, if he has, within the twelve months immediately preceding the
insolvency commencement date or at any time after the insolvency commencement date,
concealed any property of the corporate debtor exceeding a threshold amount. Who may initiate
proceedings for such concealment and before which forum?
a) IBBI; Special Court under the Companies Act, 2013
b) IBBI; National Company Law Tribunal
c) Central Government; National Company Law Tribunal
d) Central Government; Sessions Court
Ans. (a)

19. A Debt Recovery Tribunal does not have jurisdiction to entertain_________.
a) a suit or proceeding by or against an individual debtor
b) a claim made by or against a corporate debtor
c) a claim made by or against an individual debtor
d) a question of priorities arising out of insolvency of an individual debtor
Ans. (b)

20. Provisions of which legislation apply to the proceedings before the Special Court under
the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016?
a) The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
b) The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
c) The Indian Financial Code, 2013
d) The Summary Trial of Offences Act, 1999
Ans. (a)

21. An operational creditor is required to dispatch the application filed with the National
Company Law Tribunal for initiation of corporate insolvency resolution to ___________.
a) all financial creditors
b) the proposed interim resolution professional
c) the corporate debtor
d) prospective resolution applicants
Ans. (c)

22. In a Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process, if there are dues to numerous workmen of
the Corporate Debtor, _____________.
a) all workmen must submit their claims individually
b) an authorized representative may submit one claim with proof on behalf of all
workmen
c) the resolution professional shall use an authorised representative to collect and
consolidate all such claims
d) the resolution professional shall announce dues as per Corporate Debtors’
records and invite applications for disputes, if any
Ans. (b)

23. Where all financial creditors are related parties of the corporate debtor, the committee of
creditors shall comprise of _________.
a) all debenture holders
b) Top ‘n’ operational creditors accounting for 75% of voting share
c) insolvency resolution professional and authorised representative
d) 18 largest operational creditors by value and one representative each of
workmen and of employees
Ans. (d)

24. In case the resolution professional receives more than one resolution plan, _______.
a) he shall select the best plan for consideration of the Committee of Creditors
b) he shall select all such plans that meet the requirements of the Insolvency and
Bankruptcy Code, 2016 and present them for consideration of the Committee of
Creditors
c) he shall negotiate with the resolution applicant to improve their offer and then
select the best plan for consideration of the Adjudicating Authority
d) he shall file an application under section 60(5) of the Insolvency and
Bankruptcy Code, 2016 for directions
Ans. (b)

25. Which of the following is not a requirement for a company to be registered as an
insolvency professional agency?
a) Its sole object is to carry out the functions of an insolvency professional
agency.
b) It has a minimum net worth of ten crore rupees.
c) It is promoted by a statutory regulator.
d) It is not under the control of person(s) resident outside India.
Ans. (c)

26. Which of the following statements is not true about disposal of a show cause notice
issued to an insolvency professional agency?
a) The order in disposal of show-cause notice becomes effective on the day of
receipt of the order by the insolvency professional agency.
b) The order in disposal of show-cause notice becomes effective ordinarily after
thirty days of the date of issue of order.
c) The Disciplinary Committee disposes of the show-cause notice by a reasoned
order in adherence to principles of natural justice.
d) The Disciplinary Committee endeavours to dispose of the show-cause notice
within a period of six months of the assignment.
Ans. (a)

27. Who enrols an individual as its professional member?
a) Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India
b) Registered Valuer Organisation
c) An Insolvency Professional Agency
d) Indian institute of Corporate Affairs
Ans.(c)

28. Who amongst the following is eligible for registration as an insolvency professional?
a) A banker with 15 years of professional experience
b) An advocate with 10 years of professional experience
c) An MBA with 10 years of managerial experience
d) A graduate with 10 years of managerial experience
Ans. (b)

29. Which of the following is not prohibited by the code of conduct for insolvency
professionals?
a) Negligence while performing his functions and duties.
b) Taking support services from an insolvency professional entity
c) Accepting gifts or hospitality from a creditor
d) Conducting business which in the opinion of the IBBI is inconsistent with the
reputation of the profession.
Ans. (b)

30. Who ordinarily decides the fees payable to a liquidator under the IBBI (Liquidation
Process) Regulations, 2016?
a) Committee of Creditors
b) Corporate Debtor
c) Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India
d) Adjudicating Authority
Ans. (a)

31. Which of the following may not prove existence of debt due to an operational creditor
under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (Liquidation Process) Regulations, 2016?
a) Records available with an information utility
b) A charge registered with Registrar of Companies
c) A contract for the supply of goods and service.
d) An invoice demanding payment for the goods and services supplied
Ans.(b)

32. The option to sell the assets of a corporate debtor by means of private sale under the
Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (Liquidation Process) Regulations, 2016 is not
available to a liquidator if the asset is_________.
a) perishable
b) sold at a price lower than the reserve price of a failed auction
c) likely to deteriorate in value if not sold immediately
d) sold at a price higher than the reserve price of a failed auction
Ans. (b)

33. In which of the following circumstances voluntary liquidation is permissible?
a) Where the committee of creditors decides to liquidate the company during the
resolution period.
b) Where the Adjudicating Authority does not receive a resolution plan of a
company
c) Where the company has no debt or can pay all its debts in full.
d) Where there is a financial debt arising out of default in payment of counterindemnity obligation in respect of the guarantee.
Ans.(c)

34. The Annual Status Report indicating progress of the voluntary liquidation is not
required to include the___________.
a) details of assets that are yet to be sold
b) distribution made to stakeholders
c) cost of realization of the assets
d) developments in any material litigation
Ans. (c)

35. Which of the following is not a requirement for registration as an information utility?
a) It has a minimum net worth of Rs.50 crore.
b) At least 26% of its voting power is held by persons resident outside India.
c) More than half of its directors are independent directors.
d) Its sole object is to provide core services and other services under the
Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (Information Utilities) Regulations, 2017.
Ans. (b)

36. An information utility holds financial information as a____________.
a) trustee
b) regulator
c) custodian
d) fiduciary
Ans. (c)

37. During a fast track process, existence of dues in case of workmen can be proved ________.
a) individually or collectively
b) individually only
c) collectively only
d) by resolution professional
Ans.(a)

38. An order of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India directing an inspecting authority
to conduct an inspection of records of a service provider may not contain____________.
a) scope of inspection
b) privileges of service provider
c) composition of inspecting authority
d) timelines for conducting the inspection
Ans.(b)

39. A show-cause notice issued by the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India on
consideration of an inspection report needs to be disposed of by ________within__________.
a) Inspecting Authority; Six months
b) IBBI; three months
c) Adjudicating Authority; One year
d) Disciplinary Committee; Six months
Ans.(d)

40. When a complaint and grievance is in the same matter, it will fall within the category
of __________.
a) general complaint
b) complaint-cum-grievance
c) complaint
d) grievance
Ans.(b)

41. Par value of a share means _________.
a) face value of the share
b) dividend value of the share
c) the latest traded value of the share on the stock-exchange
d) fair market value of the share
Ans.(a)

42. Who among the following need not be given notice for the general meeting of a
company?
a) a member of the company
b) an assignee of an insolvent member of the company
c) the auditor of the company
d) a debenture holder of the company
Ans. (d)

43. Financial statement of a company does not include _______.
a) due and drawn statement
b) balance sheet
c) cash flow statement
d) profit and loss account
Ans. (a)

44. When a company has failed to commence its business within one year of its
incorporation, ___________.
a) the registrar may strike off its name from the register of companies
b) it will be given a dormant status
c) its registration will be suspended
d) it will be referred to official liquidator
Ans.(a)

45. Can a member function as a Bench of National Company Law Tribunal?
a) Yes, a technical member, if duly authorised.
b) Yes, a judicial member, if duly authorised.
c) Yes, only in exigencies when no other member is available.
d) No, a member cannot function as a Bench.
Ans.(b)

46. A company which has not been carrying on any business or operation, or has not made
any significant accounting transaction during the last two financial years, or has not filed
financial statements and annual returns during the last two financial years is _________.
a) an inactive company
b) a shelf company
c) a company undergoing insolvency resolution process
d) a dormant company
Ans. (a)

47. Mr. X, a partner of a limited liability partnership defrauded creditors of the limited liability
partnership for fraudulent purpose. The liability of the limited liability partnership _______.
a) shall be unlimited
b) shall be limited
c) shall be limited, but the rest of liability will be that of Mr. X
d) shall be nil, as all the liability will be that of Mr. X
Ans.(a)

48. Every limited liability partnership shall file a duly authenticated ______ with the Registrar
within sixty days of closure of its financial year.
a) Auditor’s Report
b) Cash Flow Statement
c) Annual Return
d) Profit and Loss Statement
Ans. (c)

49. A valid Agreement is one which ___________.
a) creates legal and social obligations on the parties
b) creates only rights of a party
c) is written on a piece of paper and signed by the parties
d) creates legally binding rights and obligations on the parties to it
Ans. (d)

50. A contract in which one person promises to compensate the other person for the loss
suffered by him, due to the conduct of the promisor or of any other person, is known
as________.
a) contract of indemnity
b) contract of guarantee
c) quasi-contract
d) contingent contract
Ans.(a)

51. Under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, ‘delivery’ means ___________________.
a) gratuitous transfer of possession from one person to another
b) involuntary transfer of possession from one person to another
c) voluntary transfer of possession from one person to another
d) transfer of possession irrespective of whether it is gratuitous, involuntary or
voluntary, from one person to another.
Ans.(c)

52. In terms of the Partnership Act,1932 the partner of a firm where partnership is at will may
retire __________.
a) with the consent of all the other partners
b) in accordance with an express agreement by the partners
c) by giving notice in writing to all the other partners of his intention to retire
d) without the consent of all the other partners
Ans.(c)

53. ‘A’ transfers a garden to B for his life, with a proviso that, in case B cuts down a particular
neem tree, the transfer shall cease to have any effect. B cuts down the tree. Decide the case in
the light of Transfer of Property Act, 1882.
a) B loses his life interest in the garden.
b) B does not lose his life interest in the garden.
c) No such provision is made under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882.
d) The transfer will become void-ab-initio.
Ans. (a)

54. A suit for recovery of possession can be filed under the Specific Relief Act, 1963, _______.
a) for immovable property only
b) for movable property only
c) for both immovable and movable property
d) only by the owner in respect of property to which he has rightful title
Ans.(c)

55. When an instrument has been lost, then as per the Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881, until
the contrary is proved, it shall be presumed that it was _________.
a) an expired instrument
b) duly stamped
c) duly registered
d) duly signed
Ans.(b)

56. Which of the following decides applications from the banks and financial institutions
for recovery of debts due to them?
a) Debt Recovery Tribunal
b) Debt Recovery Appellate Tribunal
c) Securities Appellate Tribunal
d) Central Board of Direct Taxes
Ans. (a)

57. As per the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of
Security Interest Act, 2002, what constitutes a ‘non-performing asset’?
a) An asset of a borrower which has been classified by a credit rating agency as
doubtful.
b) An asset or an account of a borrower which has been classified by a bank as
sub-standard or doubtful or loss asset.
c) An account for which a borrower has refused to repay.
d) An asset of borrower’s subsidiaries company which has failed to repay any of
its debt.
Ans.(b)

58. The Hon’ble Supreme Court, in the matter of Mardia Chemicals Ltd. Vs. Union of India,
held that the requirement of deposit of 75% of amount claimed before entertaining an appeal
(petition) under Section 17 of the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and
Enforcement of Security Interest, 2002 is _________.
a) valid but in the interest of justice, the amount to be deposited should be
reduced to 45%
b) an arbitrary condition against all the canons of reasonableness
c) mandatory and must be complied with
d) a matter of executive prerogative and the court does not have the jurisdiction
to interfere in such matters
Ans.(b)

59. The arbitration agreement as defined in Section 7(2) of The Arbitration and
Conciliation Act, 1996 may be _________.
a) in form of contract and a separate agreement
b) in form of contract and a written agreement
c) in the form of an arbitration clause in a contract or in the form of a
separate agreement
d) in the form of an implied oral agreement.
Ans.(c)

60. In computing the period of limitation of any suit for the execution of a decree, the institution
or execution of which has been stayed by injunction or order, the time of the continuance of
the injunction or order from the day on which it was ______ shall be excluded.
a) issued
b) filed
c) admitted
d) heard first
Ans. (a)

61. As per the SEBI (Delisting of Equity Shares) Regulations, 2009 delisting of which of the
following is not permitted?
a) convertible securities
b) authorised equity shares recognised by any stock exchange
c) sweat equity shares
d) bonus shares
Ans. (a)

62. Which of the following is most appropriate for measuring a bond’s sensitivity to
shaping risk?
a) Key rate duration
b) Effective duration
c) Modified duration
d) Median duration
Ans.(a)

63. Exchange markets and Over the Counter Markets are considered as two types of –
___________.
a) Inter market
b) Primary market
c) Secondary market
d) Risky market
Ans. (c)

64. Which of the following represent the standard of living in a country?
a) National Income
b) Per capita income
c) Poverty ratio
d) Unemployment rate
Ans. (b)

65. The Policy Repo Rate is ______ the Reverse Repo rate.
a) higher than
b) lower than
c) equal to
d) 75% of
Ans. (a)

66. Which of the following is not a settlement machinery appointed by the appropriate authority
for the settlement of the industrial disputes under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?
a) Conciliation officers
b) Labour Courts
c) Board of Arbitrators
d) Courts of Inquiry
Ans.(c)

67. As per the Constitution of India, which of the following courts is not a ‘court of record’?
a. High Courts and District Courts
b. District Courts, High Courts and Supreme Court of India
c. The Supreme Court of India and High Courts.
d. District Court only.
Ans. (d)

68. Balance sheet of a company does not reflect________.
a) what the company owns and what the company owes
b) the assets and liabilities of the company
c) the financial health of the company
d) the income and expenditure of the company
Ans. (d)

69. The listed entity (which has listed its specified securities) shall submit __________
standalone financial results to the stock exchange within __________ days of end of each
quarter.
a) Quarterly and year-to-date; 45
b) Half-yearly or quarterly or year-to-date; 30
c) Quarterly and year-to-date; 30
d) Half-yearly and year-to-date; 45
Ans. (a)

70. Basic Earnings per Share (EPS) is calculated as __________.
a) Net profit /total number of shares
b) (Net profit – preferred dividend)/weighted average number of outstanding
shares
c) (Net Profit – Preference Share Capital) /Average shares outstanding
d) (Net Profit – Dividend) /Total shares outstanding
Ans.(b)

71. A firm can enhance its value by________.
a) increasing working capital
b) increasing capital expenditure
c) decreasing cost of capital
d) increasing debt
Ans. (c)

72. How is cash management different than liquidity management?
a) Cash management deals with only one account, while liquidity management
involves everything on the balance sheet.
b) Cash management only considers the current financial reporting period, while
liquidity management looks out 2-3 years.
c) Cash management only considers cash, while liquidity management considers
assets that are considered liquid.
d) Cash management is essential to financial reporting, while liquidity
management is just a good practice.
Ans.(c)

73. Who will pay GST on the business (in respect of which any tax, interest or penalty is
payable under CGST Act) carried on by a minor, or other incapacitated person on behalf of and
for the benefit of such minor or other incapacitated person?
a) Guardian
b) Partner
c) Director
d) Such businesses are exempted from paying GST
Ans. (a)

74. The process whereby a company sells its receivables to a collection agent in order to
secure a cash sum which is at a discount to the face value of the receivables is termed as
________________process.
a) debt factoring
b) credit factoring
c) sell per se
d) cash collection
Ans. (a)

75. The Supreme Court in Mobilox Innovations(P) Limited vs. Kirusa Software (P) Limited
CA No. 9405 of 2017, has interpreted the expression “_____________”.
a) Operational Creditor
b) Existence of Dispute
c) Time value of money
d) Doctrine of Repugnancy
Ans.(b)

76. In the case of Sree Metaliks Limited and another vs. Union of India [W.P.7144 (W) of
2017, Cal] it was held by Calcutta High Court that_______________.
a) Section 7 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 is unconstitutional
b) Section 7 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 must be read with the
Section 424 of the Companies Act, 2013
c) the National Company Law Tribunal and National Company Law Appellate
Tribunal have to adhere to the principles of natural justice barring exceptional
circumstance
d) the principles of natural justice is expressly ousted from Section 7 of the
Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016
Ans. (c)

77. In the case of Era Infra Engineering Ltd. vs. Prideco Commercial Projects Pvt. Ltd.
(Company Appeal (AT) (Insolvency) No. 31 of 2017), the NCLAT held that in case no notice
was issued by the Operational Creditor under Section 8 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy
Code, 2016 then________.
a) the application under Section 9 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016,
stands dismissed being incomplete
b) the application under Section 9 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016,
is provisionally admitted
c) the application under Section 9 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016
is dismissed however the moratorium on the corporate debtor can be declared
d) the application under Section 9 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016
is admitted however no moratorium is declared
Ans. (a)

78. In Pratik Ramesh Chirania vs. Trinity Auto Components Ltd. M.A.544/2017 (CP No.
1032/I&BC/MB/MAH/2017), the Mumbai bench of NCLT opined that ‘satisfaction of
Adjudicating Authority’ as mandated under Section 31(1) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy
Code, 2016 _____________.
a) is only subjective
b) can be subjective or objective or both
c) can be sanctioned without judicial analysis
d) is objective as the parameters to exercise such satisfaction is clearly provided
for under the provisions of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016
Ans. (b)

79. In Kamineni Steel & Power India Pvt. Ltd. (CP(IB) No. 11/10/HDB/2017), it was argued
that the resolution plan ___________.
a) did not reflect the interest of the operational creditors properly
b) was not approved by 75% of the voting share of financial creditor
c) was presented by the promoters who were the wilful defaulters
d) included extortionate credit transactions
Ans. (b)

Attempt Questions 80-83 based upon the following case study/transaction analysis
‘XYZ’ a public limited company engaged in the construction of roads is in default in repayment
of dues to the following:
General slowdown in construction activities had resulted in low capacity utilization and
inadequate cash generation for timely payment of dues to all concerned.
Repeated follow-up by the Financial Institutions with the corporate debtor, ‘XYZ’ for
submitting its specific plan of action for repayment of dues did not evoke any response.
Therefore, after a joint lenders meeting, all the financial institutions unanimously decided to
apply under the provisions of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 to the National
Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) for starting the process of insolvency resolution in respect of
‘XYZ’.
Financial Creditors filed an application before NCLT which was admitted by NCLT on 20th
May, 2017 and orders issued for commencement of a moratorium, appointment of an interim
resolution professional A and for his making a public announcement inviting claims from all
concerned.
A made a public announcement and the following creditors were identified:
1. Financial debts owed to unsecured creditor (F1) – 5 crore
2. Workmen’s dues for the period of 24 months preceding the liquidation
commencement date (F2) – 15 crore
3. Debts owed to a secured creditor who has relinquished his security (F3) – 30
crore
4. Debts owed to the Central Government (F4) – 17 crore
5. Debts owed to a secured creditor for an amount unpaid following the
enforcement of security interest (F5) – 26 crore
B was the statutory auditor of the corporate debtor and F1 has been identified as a related Party
to XYZ Ltd. A committee of creditors was constituted. The committee in its meeting decided
to appoint P as the resolution professional.

80. P can take the following action without the approval of the committee of creditors:
a) Raise interim finance
b) Make changes in the appointment of B
c) Record change in the ownership interest of XYZ
d) File application for avoidance of a preferential transactions
Ans.(d)

81. In terms of the moratorium order, the following shall not be prohibited:
a) Foreclosing of security interest created by XYZ in respect of its property
b) Institution of arbitration proceedings
c) Recovery of a property by a lessor where such property is occupied by XYZ
d) Supply of raw material essential for laying down the roads
Ans.(d)

82. The NCLT rejected the resolution plan for want of compliance with the Insolvency and
Bankruptcy Code, accordingly the proceeds from the sale of liquidation shall be distributed in
the following order of priority:
a) F2 – F1 – F3 – F4 & F5 (ranked equally)
b) F2 & F5 (ranked equally) – F3 – F1 – F4
c) F2 & F5 (ranked equally) – F1 – F3 – F4
d) F3 & F2 (ranked equally) – F1 – F5 & F4 (ranked equally)
Ans.(d)

83. During the course of liquidation, it was found that XYZ had gifted some assets of the
company to another company DEF Ltd on 20th April 2015 and F1 reported the transaction to
the National Company Law Tribunal by way of an application. The National Company Law
Tribunal may pass an order:
a) Rejecting the application;
b) Requiring the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board to initiate disciplinary
proceedings against the liquidator;
c) Require any person to pay sums in respect of benefits received by such person
to the liquidator;
d) Require any person to submit relevant documents of transaction to the
Insolvency
and Bankruptcy Board of India to make necessary order.
Ans. (a)

Attempt Questions 84-87 based upon the following case study/transaction analysis assuming
that the provisions of Insolvency Resolution and Bankruptcy for Individuals and Partnership
firms under Part-III of the Code have been notified.
MM is a gym located at leased premises in Lajpat Nagar, New Delhi. Because of competition
and other issues, MM is facing financial difficulties and its and it is not meeting its liabilities.
All the efforts to revive the business, cut the costs or even sell the business were unsuccessful.
Payment to equipment suppliers and maintenance agencies are due for supplies provided in the
previous 3 months amounting to around Rs. 2 lakh. The rent for its premises remains unpaid
for 3 months amounting to Rs. ninety thousand towards landlord Mr. D (the landlord had
received advance rent for three months, lease deed provided for one-month rent as security and
one-month rent as advance). MM has a loan account with XYZ Bank, which remains unpaid
for last two months. The monthly EMI for the loan is Rs. 1 lakh.
MM was managed by Mr. M, as a sole proprietor. MM has employed 7 persons, including 3
trainers, 1 accountant and 3 housekeeping staff. The salaries due to these employees were paid
in half since the past four months. The housekeeping staff are covered under the definition of
workmen.
Mr. M made an application under Section 94 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 for
initiation of insolvency resolution of MM. The Adjudicating Authority admitted the application
and appointed P as resolution professional.
The Adjudicating Authority considered the repayment plan approved by the creditors and
rejected it.

84. Whether M could have applied for fresh start process?
a) Yes, before the National Company Law Tribunal
b) No, MM is ineligible for applying for fresh start process
c) No, as it is required to seek prior approval of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy
Board of India
d) Yes, before the Debt Recovery Tribunal
Ans. (b)

85. In the case which of the following is incorrect?
a) Mr. M can make an application for bankruptcy
b) The employees can make an application for bankruptcy
c) The bankruptcy process is automatically initiated with the rejection of
repayment plan, without requiring any application
d) The order of Adjudicating Authority rejecting the repayment plan is to be
provided to the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India for record.
Ans. (c)

86. In the above situation if a bankruptcy order is passed against MM, who shall prepare
the list of creditors?
a) Bankruptcy trustee
b) MM
c) Adjudicating Authority
d) None, the list of creditors made by P shall be used.
Ans. (a)

87. In the bankruptcy proceeding what debts will be paid before the dues of the accountant of
the bankrupt?

a) Unpaid debt owed to the trainers
b) Dues of the housekeeping staff and the debts owed to the secured creditor

c) Dues of Mr. D
d) Dues of suppliers
Ans. (b)

HOW CONSTRUCTION MATERIAL PLAYS AN IMPORTANT ROLE IN THE QUALITY AND SAFETY OF ANY INFRASTRUCTURE PROJECT

HOW CONSTRUCTION MATERIAL PLAYS AN IMPORTANT ROLE IN THE QUALITY AND SAFETY OF ANY INFRASTRUCTURE PROJECT

Over the years, real estate has become a topic of varied opinions. The rise of this industry has seen so many challenges and witnessed many changes; however, thus, outcome attained by it has been varied too.
People today are not afraid to  invest in real estate and often go to great heights to make sure they receive value for their buck and more importantly get a place that makes them and their families comfortable.

However, even before the finished apartment comes into being, the initial draft or blueprint is something that key focus is laid on.

This also comprises the construction materials, the raw material for interiors, planning and several other important decisions that need to be discussed in this time zone. One of the major aspects here is the construction and building materials.

Today, we have brands and suppliers in abundance who supply some of the best building construction materials and a lot of builders also go one step ahead to even partner with suppliers who supply quality products.

So why the emphasis on ensuring you only have premium quality construction material as a part of your building construction process?

Well because, the final reflection of your construction will be proof of what you have used right from the beginning and its life and sustenance of the project as well, will be wholly focused on it.Here is how good construction materials will play an important role in the quality and safety of an infrastructure project:

1. Cost-Saving in the Long Run:

If you put an extra buck or two in procuring the best quality construction and building materials, this will in a way save a ton of money later on.If you skimp, you will be shelling out small amounts to fix a small wear and tear and in the end, this will result in a sum much larger than what you would have to pay initially for good quality material.This, make sure for this ‘skeleton’ of your construction, you invest only in the best quality goods you can acquire.

2. No Complaints and Maintaining Goodwill:

It is important to realize that the construction you are creating today will be a home for someone tomorrow.
Putting in your best while constructing, it will ensure their home tomorrow is safeguarded and secure and for that, they will only have the builder to thank! This in a way will add to your goodwill and lead to happy and content customers.

 

3. Recommendations will Improve Business like No Other Marketing Strategy:

Following the goodwill, people will speak to their acquaintances, friends and colleagues and in a way market your service for free! This will do wonders for your business in the long run as real testimonials from someone you know means more than any amounts of marketing strategies you use.

4. Saves Time:

In the future, fixing small glitches in the property will mean more expenses and effort, and of course will create a hassle for the residents too. All these concerns can be taken care of if you simply invest in quality construction materials right from the start.

5. Assurance during Natural Calamities or Crisis:

Although the risk associated with natural calamities cannot be measured, you can definitely take measures to minimize damage in case of one!

Some good quality material will be able to withstand damage to a certain extent and of course, will be able to repulse way better than a building whose base construction is in itself poor.

MODERN BUILDING CONSTRUCTION TECHNIQUES

MODERN BUILDING CONSTRUCTION TECHNIQUES

Building construction methods have experienced significant facelift in recent times with innovative technologies being harnessed optimally for improving the qualitative index of buildings.

This has spelled considerable advantages for end users like us who can remain immune from recurrent expenses on repairs and other incidental building-related jobs. Construction lead time has also been reduced and building costs have been rationalized.

This post takes you through 8 techniques that have given the much-needed fillip to the most primitive human pursuit that still exists i.e. construction.

1)  3D Volumetric Construction

Using this modular construction technology, 3D units are produced in controlled factory settings using needful construction and building materials.

Finished units are transported to site in various modules, basic structural blocks or final touched up units with all amenities installed, for assembly. Blocks can be erected rapidly at site and properties of concrete like fire retardant, sound resistivity, thermal mass etc. are retained.

2) Precast Flat Panel Modules

These are primarily wall and floor modules which are manufactured away from the actual site and then transported to site for erection. Load bearing components like decorative cladding and insulation panels can also be produced.
Also called cross-wall construction, the technology has gained momentum due to seamless adherence to specifications and ease as well as swiftness of construction.

3) Tunnel Formwork System

With this tunnel technique, construction is paced up for cellular structures of repetitive patterns through the building of monolithic walls or units in a single operation per day.

Expeditious work is achieved by deploying formwork and readily mixed concrete with the convenience and agility of factory conditions. Formworks in tunnel form are stacked and used at the site with cranes.


4) Flat Slabbing Technology

This technique utilizes the simplicity of contemporary formwork for quickly building flat slabs to facilitate easy and swift placing of horizontal amenities and for partitioning.
Maximization of pre-fabricated services occurs as services can be carried out in an uninterrupted manner in zones underneath the floor slabs.Every top-notch building construction company .  is using the same as internal layouts can be conveniently modified for accommodating alterations at a later date. Further, reinforcement needed is lesser which cuts down labour costs significantly.

5) Pre-cast Foundation Technique

Foundations can be built swiftly with precast concrete units which are produced in a factory and are high on quality quotient. Strength is imparted to foundation related building construction materials through interconnected concrete piles.

This technique allows construction work to progress even in inclement weather and minimizes excavation activity.

6) Hybrid Concrete Building Technique

This technique expedites construction turnaround time by blending the advantages of concrete pre-casting with the in-situ building. Quality improves, whereas the cost of construction plummets.

Hybrid concrete structures are easy to build, competitive in nature and perform consistently.

7) Thin Joint Masonry Technique

Utilization of this technique leads to the reduction of the quantum of mortar applied by slashing it depth from 10mm to lesser than 3mm. Consequently, mortar can be laid swiftly with enhanced productivity on the longer wall panels.

With large sized concrete blocks, higher construction efficiency along with significant cost reduction can be achieved. Within a single day, the number of mortar courses laid is higher as curing of mortar takes place quickly without compromising on bonding strength resulting in the elimination of floating problem.

8) Insulating Concrete Formwork (ICF) Technique

ICF technique employs polystyrene blocks that feature twin walls and can be rapidly put together for creating building wall formwork. The formwork is then pumped in with high quality, ready mixed, factory-made concrete.
The building construction process becomes fool-proof and the resultant structure has a high level of sound and thermal insulation.

Building construction methods have matured significantly with advancement in technologies underlying them.

What is Rebaring ? Types of Steel Reinforcement Bars , types of rebaring , Types of Deformed Steel Bars

What is Rebaring ?

Steel reinforcement bars or rebars are used to improve the tensile strength of the concrete, since concrete is very weak in tension, but is strong in compression. Steel is only used as rebar because elongation of steel due to high temperatures (thermal expansion coefficient) nearly equals to that of concrete.

Rebaring is the method of insertion of the Steel bars when,
there is change in design or there is some extension of the present structure.When Steel rod as per drawing has not been installed.
Rebaring technique is reinforced concrete construction is a method for proper fabrication and placement of reinforcement bar as per the design and drawing of RCC work.
2)  Need of Rebaring
The rebars are mainly provided at the junction where the formwork of structural element is closed as well as at the point where a new structural element needs to be bond with the former one.Change in the design and sudden extension in structure.Steel bars are not placed according to as per design.
Various conditions that rebaring process and equipment are changed.rebaring technique in reinforced concrete construction.Rebaring technique on a Pre-casted structure.
3) Process of rebaring in reinforced concrete construction.

The three main operations carried out in rebaring for reinforced concrete construction bars are cutting, bending, tying.
The diameter of reinforcement bars used reinforced concrete works mainly  ranges from 6 to 42 mm these reinforcement bars comes from the Steel mills in specified lengths.
So during installation the reinforcement bars must be cut into required size.

The design engineer show the details about the bar bending and related work based on which the workers proceed the work.

4) Equipments used for rebaring techniques.

The equipments that is used for Rebaring operation is developed with the time as the size of Bar is increases. large size of bars are difficult to be handled by hand operation.
The uses of chisel and hammer was an early effect is used for bar bending.

Grades of Rebar in Different Codes

Table 1: Grades of Rebar in Different Codes

American Standard (ASTM A 615) Euro Standard(DIN 488) British Standard BS4449: 1997 Indian Standard (IS: 1786)
Grade 75 (520) BST 500 S GR 460 A Grade Fe – 415, Fe – 500, Fe – 500D
Grade 80 (550) BST 500 M GR 460 B Grade Fe – 550

Types of Steel Reinforcement Bars

Major types of steel bars used in the construction are as follows,

1. Mild Steel Bar

The surface of the mild steel bars are plain and round in shape. They are available in various sizes of 6 mm to 50 mm. They are used in concrete for special purposes, such as dowels at expansion joints, where bars must slide in a metal or paper sleeve, for contraction joints in roads and runways, and for column spirals. They are easy to cut and bend without damage.

For structural buildings like bridges and other heavy structures, mild steel bar is not recommended due to no great bonding between concrete and steel, slippage and strength.

Grades in mild steel bars

1. Mild Steel Bars

  • Mild steel bars grade-I designated as Fe 410-S or Grade 60.
  • Mild steel bars grade-II designated as Fe-410-o or Grade 40.

2. Medium Tensile Steel Bars designated as Fe- 540-w-ht or Grade 75.

Physical Requirement of Mild Steel Bars

Table 2:Physical Requirement of Mild Steel Bars

Types of Nominal size of bar Ultimate Tensile Stress in N/mm2 Yield Stress N/mm2 Elongation Percentage min
Mild Steel Grade I or Grade 60
For Bars upto 20mm 410 250 23
For Bars above 20mm upto 50mm 410 240 23
Mild Steel Grade II or Grade 40
For Bars upto 20mm 370 225 23
For Bars above 20mm upto 50mm 370 215 23
Medium Tensile Steel Grade -75
For Bars upto 16mm 540 350 20
For Bars above 16mm upto 32mm 540 340 20
For Bars above 32mm upto 50mm 510 330 20

2. Deformed Steel Bar

Latest NATA Course Syllabus

Council of Architecture (CoA) has released the official NATA syllabus 2022 on the official website nata.in. Candidates will be able to check the detailed information regarding the subjects, topics and units that have to be studied for NATA Exams. The authorities will conduct NATA as a single section examination. Candidates will be assessed on their aptitude and the candidates will accordingly have to prepare for the examination. NATA syllabus is an essential part of the examination and candidates are advised to check it beforehand. Read to know more about NATA Syllabus .

NATA 2022 Syllabus

Candidates can check the details regarding NATA 2022 syllabus from the table given below:

Topics
Physics and Geometry
Mathematics
Aesthetic Sensitivity
Colour Theory
Language and Interpretation
Visual Perception and Cognition
Lateral Thinking and Logical Reasoning
General Knowledge and Current Affairs
Building Anatomy and Architectural Vocabulary
Basic Techniques of Building Construction and Knowledge of Material
Graphics and Imagery

While preparing the questions for NATA 2022, the authorities will keep many factors that they wish to assess in mind. Candidates can check the factors below:

  • Abstract Reasoning – Candidates will be tested on their general knowledge and their ability to apply it in situations.
  • Situational Judgment – Candidates will be tested on their problem-solving abilities.
  • Numerical Reasoning – Candidates will be tested on their ability to solve simple numerical problems.
  • Inductive Reasoning – Candidates will be tested on their ability to analyze data and patterns.
  • Verbal Reasoning – Candidates will be assessed on their verbal logic.
  • Logical Reasoning – Candidates will be assessed on their ability to recognize patterns, relationships, sequences and more.
  • Diagrammatic Reasoning – Candidates will be tested on their ability to analyze drawings and use logical reasoning.

Previous Year’s NATA Syllabus

NATA Syllabus for Mathematics

Chapter Topics
Algebra Definitions of A. P. and G.P.; General term; Summation of first n-terms of series; Arithmetic/Geometric series, A.M., G.M. and their relation; Infinite G.P. series and its sum
Logarithms Definition; General properties; Change of base.
Matrices Concepts of m x n, real matrices, operations of addition, scalar multiplication and multiplication of matrices. Transpose of a matrix. Determinant of a square matrix. Properties of determinants (statement only). Minor, cofactor and adjoint of a matrix. Nonsingular matrix. The inverse of a matrix. Finding the area of a triangle. Solutions of system of linear equations. (Not more than 3 variables).
Trigonometry Trigonometric functions, addition and subtraction formulae, formulae involving multiple and submultiple angles, general solution of trigonometric equations. Properties of triangles, inverse trigonometric functions, and their properties.
Coordinate geometry Distance formula, section formula, area of a triangle, condition of collinearity of three points in a plane. Polar coordinates, the transformation from Cartesian to polar coordinates and vice versa. Parallel transformation of axes, the concept of locus, elementary locus problems. The slope of a line. Equation of lines in different forms, angle between two lines. Condition of perpendicularity and parallelism of two lines. Distance of a point from a line. Distance between two parallel lines. Lines through the point of intersection of two lines. Equation of a circle with a given centre and radius. A condition that a general equation of second degree in x, y may represent a circle. Equation of a circle in terms of endpoints of a diameter. Equation of tangent, normal and chord. Parametric equation of a circle. The intersection of a line with a circle. Equation of common chord of two intersecting circles.
3-Dimensional Co-ordinate geometry Direction cosines and direction ratios, the distance between two points and section formula, equation of a straight line, equation of a plane, a distance of a point from a plane.
Theory of Calculus Functions, the composition of two functions and inverse of a function, limit, continuity, derivative, chain rule, derivatives of implicit functions and functions defined parametrically. Integration as a reverse process of differentiation, indefinite integral of standard functions. Integration by parts. Integration by substitution and partial fraction. Definite integral as a limit of a sum with equal subdivisions. The fundamental theorem of integral calculus and its applications. Properties of definite integrals. Formation of ordinary differential equations, solution of homogeneous differential equations, separation of variables method, linear first-order differential equations.
Application of Calculus Tangents and normals, conditions of tangency. Determination of monotonicity, maxima, and minima. Differential coefficient as a measure of rate. Motion in a straight line with constant acceleration. Geometric interpretation of definite integral as area, calculation of area bounded by elementary curves and Straight lines. Area of the region included between two elementary curves.
Permutation and combination Permutation of n different things taken r at a time. Permutation of n things not all different. Permutation with repetitions (circular permutation excluded). Combinations of n different things taken r at a time. Combination of n things not all different. Basic properties. Problems involving both permutations and combinations.
Statistics and Probability The measure of dispersion, mean, variance and standard deviation, frequency distribution. Addition and multiplication rules of probability, conditional probability and Bayes’ Theorem, independence of events, repeated independent trails and Binomial distribution.

NATA Syllabus for General Aptitude

Chapters Topics
Sets and Relations The idea of sets, subsets, power set, complement, union, intersection and difference of sets, Venn diagram, De Morgan’s Laws, Relation and its properties. Equivalence relation — definition and elementary examples.
Mathematical reasoning Statements, logical operations like and, or, if and only if, implies, implied by. Understanding of tautology, converse, contradiction, and contrapositive
Objects Texture related to architecture and the built environment. Interpretation of pictorial compositions, Visualizing three-dimensional objects from two-dimensional drawing. Visualizing different sides of 3D objects. Analytical reasoning, mental ability (visual, numerical and verbal), General awareness of national/ international architects and famous architectural creations.

NATA Syllabus for Drawing

Understanding of scale and proportion of objects, geometric composition, shape, building forms and elements, aesthetics, colour texture, harmony, and contrast. Conceptualization and Visualization through structuring objects in memory. Drawing of patterns – both geometrical and abstract. Form transformations in 2D and 3D like union, subtraction, rotation, surfaces, and volumes. Generating plan, elevation and 3D views of objects. Creating 2-D and 3-D compositions using given shapes and forms. Perspective drawing, Sketching of urbanscape and landscape, Common day-to-day life objects like furniture, equipment, etc from memory.

NATA 2022 Exam Pattern

Candidates will be able to check the details regarding the NATA EXAM PATTERNS from the table given below:

Particulars Details
Mode Computer-Based Test (Online)
Duration 3 hours
Medium English
Sections Aptitude
Number of Questions 125
Type of Questions Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

Preferential Answer Type Questions (PAQ)

Numerical Answer Type Questions (NAQ)

Marking Scheme 75 Questions – 1 mark will be given for every correct answer.

25 Questions – 2 marks will be given for every correct answer.

25 Questions – 3 marks will be given for every correct answer.

REFERENCE TAKEN FROM SIKSHA.COM

BACHELOR OF ARCHITECTURE U.G COURSE IN INDIA

BArch is a 5-year UG course in which students are taught to construct and design buildings, monuments, bridges, and other construction-able structures.

Students who want to pursue BArch must have done at least 10+2 with Non Medical Stream from a recognized board or diploma from a recognized university with 50% aggregate marks. Students completing the eligibility process have to go through an entrance exam such as NATA or JEE Mains to get admission and get selected in the BArch course.

BArch also offers great opportunities for students in the job market like architecture designers, architecture engineers, staff consultants, managers, art directors, building contractors, etc. . Some of the best recruiters of BArch course students are L&T, IMAXE, DLF, VSA Space Design, and many more. The average salary offered after completing the course is around INR 4 lacs to INR 5 lacs per annum.

Bachelor in Architecture Course Highlights

Full name Bachelor of Architecture
Duration 5 years
Eligibility Minimum 50% aggregate marks in 10+2 with Non-medical stream or diploma in civil or architecture from a recognized university in relevant subject
Admission process Entrance exam
Course Fee INR 3-5 lakhs
Course Average Salary INR 5-10 lakhs
Top Recruiting Companies L & T, DLF, IMAXE, Jones Lang LaSalle Meghraj, Manchanda Associates, Sahara Group, Architect Consultants, VSA space Design(P). Ltd., Edifice Architects Pvt. Ltd.
Job Position Data Analyst, Architecture Designer, Architecture Engineer, Staff Consultant, Manager, Art Director, Building Contractor, Landscape Architect, Technical Assistant, Interior Designer.

About Bachelor in Architecture

  • BArch teaches the student to construct and design buildings, monuments, bridges, and other construction-able structures.
  • This course course is intended to produce licensed and professional architects who are qualified to work on government and private projects.
  • Students who study BArch design the blueprints of the structure to be made according to the idea or instruction given to them.
  • BArch consists of various aspects of different streams of humanities, engineering, aesthetics, along with theory subjects, studio, project work, practical training, and research training.

Bachelor in Architecture Admission Process

B. Arch students have to go through an entrance exam NATA Test . In distance mode, students are selected on the basis of the marks they received in the last NATA exam.

Bachelor of Architecture Eligibility

The students who want admission to Bachelor of Architecture must fulfill certain eligibility criteria. Below are the steps about the eligibility criteria:

  • The students taking admission in B. Arch must have passed 10+2 with mathematics as the main subject from a recognized board.
  • The students must have scored at least 50% aggregate marks in their last qualifying exam.
  • The students who have done a diploma in relevant subject from a recognized university with at least 50% aggregate marks could also take admission in B. Arch.

Bachelor of Architecture Entrance Exam

Exam name Registration date Exam date
JEE Mains To be Announced To be Announced
NATA May  EVERY YEAR April EVERY YEAR

Bachelor of Architecture Distance Education

Earlier there was option of Distance Learning of B.Arch . But from last few years the distance program has been stopped.

WHO IS AN ARCHITECT , Roles of Architects,Architect Skills and Duties , Cost Estimation , Main Differences Between an Architect and a Civil Engineer

An architect is a person who plans, designs and oversees the construction of buildings. To practice, architecture means to provide services in connection with the design of buildings and the space within the site surrounding the buildings that have human occupancy or use as their principal purpose. Etymologically, the term architect derives from the Latin architectuswhich derives from the Greek (arkhi-, chief + tekton, builder), i.e., chief builder.

The professional requirements for Architects vary from place to place. An architect’s decisions affect public safety, and thus the architect must undergo specialized training consisting of advanced education and a practicum (or internship) for practical experience to earn a license to practice architecture. Practical, technical, and academic requirements for becoming an architect vary by jurisdiction, though the formal study of architecture in academic institutions has played a pivotal role in the development of the profession as a whole.

Roles of Architects in Construction

Once an architect is contacted by a client, a meeting is called to discuss the project needs and requirements. Several meetings may take place until both parties are satisfied with the conceptual design. However, designing an entire building is a huge task for a single person; architects work with civil and structural engineers to discuss technical issues and the structural integrity of a building.

Architects are not just involved in the building design phase. Their role is important in every stage of a project, and this article summarizes their responsibilities. Architects can also help improve energy efficiency, by designing buildings that maximize natural lighting and ventilation, while reducing the heating and cooling needs.

Cost Estimation

Cost Estimation at different stages of the project allows better control over the budget. Architects visualize the whole building structure, bringing creative designs and ideas to the construction industry, but these also require an underlying structural design and MEP installations.

Architects and engineers must be careful not to underestimate the cost of materials and construction time, since this helps provide effective cost estimations. The amounts of details presented by architects in their cost estimations depends on their extent of work: they can be in charge of presenting a complete construction estimation, or just a part such as landscaping.

Architect Skills and Duties

The following are some of the main skills that a professional architect must have:

  • Customer service and retention: It is important for architects to develop social skills and manners, since they are usually the first construction professional that works with a client. Since they work closely with clients during all project stages, architects must have excellent oral and written communication skills.
  • Design: Architects must design, plan, and develop concepts to create construction plans and technical documents. These are based on client requirements and ideas.
  • Research: Architects must learn about the different building codes, safety regulations, construction innovations and city laws that affect their designs. Since these regulations are in constant evolution, they must stay up-to-date with new laws and requirements.
  • Technology knowledge: Architects must be trained in modeling software and techniques, such as BIM. This will help them remain competitive in the construction industry, which is becoming more technological.

Main Differences Between an Architect and a Civil Engineer

As discussed before, architects and civil engineers work together during the planning, design, and construction phases of building projects. The difference is reflected on the main goal of each professional.

  • Architects will focus on the aesthetics, look, feel and functionality of a structure. It is important to note that architects also have technical knowledge on construction methods and structural design, but that aspect is mostly delegated to civil engineers.
  • Civil engineers will concentrate on analyzing the structural integrity of the project. This included making sure the structure will support the loads and forces it will endure during its lifespan.

By working together, architects and civil engineers can find innovative ways to meet the client’s  vision and requirements. A good working relationship between the two professions guaranties an effective and successful job.

 

BEAM , types of beam , SIMPLY SUPPORTED beam ,FIXED beam , OVER HANGING BEAM , CANTILEVER BEAM

BEAM:-

beam is a structural element that primarily resists loads applied laterally to the beam’s axis. Its mode of deflection is primarily by bending . The loads applied to the beam result in reaction forces at the beam’s support points. The total effect of all the forces acting on the beam is to produce shear forces and bending moments within the beam, that in turn induce internal stresses, strains and deflections of the beam. Beams are characterized by their manner of support, profile (shape of cross-section), equilibrium conditions, length, and their material.

Beams are traditionally descriptions of building or civil engineering structural elements, but any structures such as automotive automobile frames, aircraft components, machine frames, and other mechanical or structural systems contain beam structures that are designed to carry lateral loads are analyzed in a similar fashion.

CLASSIFICATION BASED ON SUPPORTS

In engineering, beams are of several types

  1. SIMPLY SUPPORTED – a beam supported on the ends which are free to rotate and have no moment resistance.
  2. FIXED – a beam supported on both ends and restrained from rotation.
  3. OVER HANGING – a simple beam extending beyond its support on one end.
  4. DOUBLE OVERHANGING – a simple beam with both ends extending beyond its supports on both ends.
  5. CONTINUOUS – a beam extending over more than two supports.
  6. CANTILEVER – a projecting beam fixed only at one end.
  7. TRUSSED – a beam strengthened by adding a cable or rod to form a  trusses.

SIMPLY SUPPORTED BEAM:-

A simply supported beam is the simplest structural element, as the name itself suggests, it is supported at its both ends, at one end it is pinned and the other is either pinned or rollers are used. It will undergo both bending and shearing and no translational motion is allowed, only sometimes when the roller end is used, of course, the bending and shearing will vary according to the type of load such as UDL(uniformly distributed load), UVL(uniformly varying load), concentrated load etc. Coming to the next part, if both ends are hinged then it will be a fixed beam which is another class of beams, for which every type of load is not applicable, and deflection is rather less, but of course, it can be regarded as a simply supported beam as it supported by two hinge.

FIXED BEAM:-

fixed beam is one with ends restrained from rotation. In reality a beams ends are never completely fixed, as they are often modeled for simplicity. However, they can easily be restrained enough relative to the stiffness of the beam and column to be considered fixed.

DOUBLE OVERHANGING BEAM :-

Overhanging: A simple beam extending beyond its support on one end. Double

overhanging: A simple beam with both ends extending beyond its supports.

Continuous: A beam extending over more than two supports.

CONTINUOUS BEAM:- 

A continuous beam, i.e. a beam that has more than two supports, is statically indeterminate . The reactions in the supports of a continuous beam cannot be obtained with the equations of static equilibrium only. For the calculation of the reactions in the supports each section is considered as an independent beam. The action of the adjacent part is substituted by a moment in the support between the sections. The equation for determining these moments is known as the theorem of three moments.

A beam that has one fixed end and n roller supports is n-fold statically indeterminate. If both ends of the beam are fixed, then the degree of indeterminacy is equal to the number of supports. The moment in a roller support for a beam with a console is equal to the moment from the load on the console. We calculate the necessary geometrical stiffness of the beam with the equation of elastic stability  R = R=M/ECs. The stress in the beam should be less than the beam-specific and material limits, σmax < σcr and σmax < σy.

CANTILEVER BEAM:-

cantilever is a rigid  structural elements , such as a beam or a plate, anchored at one end to a (usually vertical) support from which it protrudes; this connection could also be perpendicular to a flat, vertical surface such as a wall. Cantilevers can also be constructed with trusses or slabs . When subjected to a structural load the cantilever carries the load to the support where it is forced against by a  moment and Sheared stress

Cantilever construction allows overhanging structures without external bracing, in contrast to constructions supported at both ends with loads applied between the supports, such as a simply supported beam found in a post and lintel system.

TRUSSED BEAM:- 

beam which is stiffened by a system of braces constituting a truss of which the beam is a chord is called trussed beam. It consists of steel sections (or wooden beams) and struts of steel rods. Trussed beams are used when there is great weight to be supported across wide space without supports from beneath.

REFERNCE TAKEN FROM WIKIPEDIA

 

 

 

WHAT IS FOOTING,TYPES OF FOOTING , MAT OR RAFT FOOTING

FOOTING:-

Footing is one of the most important parts of a structure which transfers loads of a structure to the underlying soil. The selection of suitable type of footing generally depends on the following factors:

  1. The depth of the soil at which safe bearing strata exists.
  2. The type and condition of soil.
  3. The type of the superstructure.

TYPES OF FOOTING:-

  • Wall footing/Strip footing.
  • Spread Footings
  • Isolated footings.
  • Stepped footings.
  • Combined footings.
  • Sloped footings.
  • Mat or Raft foundation.
  • Strapped footings
  • Pile foundation.

1. WALL OR STRIP FOOTING:

It is a component of shallow foundation which distributes the weight of a load bearing wall across the area of the ground. It is also known as wall footing.

                  

2. SPREAD FOOTING:

As the name suggests, a spread is given under the base of the foundation so that the load of the structure is distributed on wide area of the soil in such a way that the safe bearing capacity of the soil is not exceeded.

3. ISOLATED FOOTINGS:

It is square, circular or individually rectangular slab of uniform thickness, provided under each column.

4. STEPPED FOOTINGS:

The main purpose of using stepped footing is to keep the metal columns away from direct contact with soil to save them from corrosive effect. They are used to carry the load of metal columns and transmit this load to the below ground.

5. COMBINED FOOTINGS:

When two or more columns are supported by a footing it is called combined footing. This footing may be of rectangular or trapezoidal in plan. Combined footing is provided under following situations.

  • When columns are close to each other and their individual footings overlap.
  • Soil having low bearing capacity and requires more area under individual footing.
  • The column end is situated near the property line and the footing can not be extended.

6. STRAP FOOTING:

In such footing, the outer and inner column is connected by a strap beam, does not transfer any load to the soil. The individual footing areas of the columns are so arranged that the C.G of the combined loads of the two columns pass through the C.G of the two footing areas. Once this criterion is achieved, the pressure distribution below each individual footing will be uniform.

7. MAT OR RAFT FOUNDATION:

This foundation covers the entire area under the structure. This foundation has only RCC slab covering the whole area or slab and beam together. Mat foundation is adopted when heavy structures are to be constructed on soft made-up ground or marshy sites with uncertain behavior. Mat foundation is also known as raft foundation.

8. SLOPED FOOTING:

The footings having sloping top or side faces are known as sloped footings. This type of footing is useful in the construction of formwork.

FALSE CEILING,ADVANTAGES OF FALSE CEILING,TYPES OF FALSE CEILINGS

FALSE CEILING:-

Falce ceiling is the ceiling created under the main slab or the floor, using any material like Gypsum sheet,Plaster of paris (pop),Thermocol,wood ply or anything like that. A ceiling under the slab of the room to creat design and aesthetics or for the aucostic or thermal insulation purpose. Ceiling other then original or main ceiling (slab) is called falce ceiling.

ADVANTAGES OF FALSE CEILING:-

False ceiling is done underneath your real ceiling.

There is a gap between the real ceiling and false ceiling. The gap is kept for various reasons. The benefits of false ceilings are :-

  1. It helps you reduce too high ceiling. Gives you a compact feeling.
  2. It gives nice touch to the interiors. A variety of interior ceilings are now coming in the market to select from for beautifying your home or office.
  3. False ceiling helps you hide electrical wiring and you can use concealed lights.
  4. Centralized air-conditioning can be hided under the false ceiling.
  5. For offices, all the ducting cables can be moved hidden behind the false ceiling.

And there are many more, some people use the spaces under ceiling for hiding wealth like cash, gold & jewellery, property papers and keep them safe from thief and tax official.

TYPES OF FALSE CEILINGS AND ITS APPLICATIONS:-

False ceiling is provided below the roof slab on suspended supports. The false celling is usually provided for temperature control (heat insulation for AC), to install lights, or to conceal electrical and other networking cables and ugly or too high ceiling.

alse ceiling is an example of modern construction and architecture in both residential and commercial applications.

COMPONENTS OR PARTS OF FALSE CEILING:

The following figure shows the various components of a false ceiling:

TYPES OF FALSE CEILING

False ceilings can be differentiated into many types based on their uses, material used and appearance and visibility.

The major classification based on materials used are listed briefly below,

  1. Gypsum Ceiling
  2. Plaster of Paris Ceiling
  3. Fiber Ceiling
  4. Wooden Ceiling
  5. Glass Ceiling
  6. Metal Ceiling
  7. Synthetic Leather or Cloth Ceiling

GYPSUM FALSE CEILING

Gypsum false ceiling is a hydrated sulfate of calcium. This type of false ceiling are lightweight, sound insulated, fire resistance, soft and thermally insulated.

Gypsum false ceiling comes in the shape of square boards that are hung with the help of iron framework. The finishing work on these boards like paints, laminates, wallpapers and texture finish gives good look.

PLASTER OF PARIS CEILING

Plaster of Paris (POP) is the majorly used material in the construction of false ceiling. POP is obtained when gypsum is heated to a certain degree. It gives the both aesthetical and functional help.

Plaster of Paris false ceiling are attractive, almost no maintenance and has a long life span. They are very excellent insulators or heat and cold.

These types of false ceiling don’t only hide the ugly members of structure, ventilation ducts and conduits but also give smooth finish to the ceiling.

FIBER FALSE CEILING

Fiber false ceiling are in high demand for the construction of false ceiling due to low cost and east installation. The material used to manufacture fiber ceiling panels are man made by synthetic and natural minerals. As these are man-made they come in many shapes and sizes.

WOODEN FALSE CEILING

Wooden false ceiling is used due to its natural textures and pattern. Nowadays this types of false ceiling are used commonly as it gives a pleasant look to the eyes.

Wooden false ceiling being costly, is not used in malls and hospitals but can be installed in residential buildings. They can be given various finishes, or painted to get the right look.

Wooden false ceiling has many disadvantages, majorly which are:

  • Prone to thermite attack.
  • Prone to warping.
  • The room should be thermally controlled.

GLASS FALSE CEILING

One of the type of false ceiling used in construction are of glass. It is a non-crystalline material with the property of brittle and transparent. But this can be altered to make it non brittle and non-transparent using some admixtures.

As glass is a good insulator of heat, it can be used for false ceiling. This type of false ceiling improves aesthetical appearance of the building.

METAL CEILING

As metal is a hard and durable material, it is used extensively in the false ceiling. When the metal surface is polished it gives a shiny surface which is a treat for eyes.

The metals used in this are galvanized iron and aluminum. The cost of this ceiling are low as they are easy to install and access. The hidden members of the structure are easily accessed as the panels are easily removable and reattached. The construction cost becomes less as the installation, fixing and maintained is low.

SYNTHETIC LEATHER OR CLOTH CEILING

The materials used in this type of ceilings are either leather or cloth. As both the used materials are man-made they can be given any form, shape and design which improves the aesthetic view of interior of the building.

As these collects dust and has low light transferring property it’s only used in temporary tents or other temporary buildings.

ADVANTAGES OF FALSE CEILING

  • It provides a smooth homogeneous surface to the roof.
  • It provides fire protection as it creates compartmentation.
  • False ceiling helps in acoustical treatment.
  • It conceals all the non-pleasing elements and hides it from the viewer’s eyes.
  • It also hides the pipelines and the electrical cables running in the room. All the ducts of air-conditioning can be hidden under it.
  • False ceiling materials are easy to install and cheap as compared to traditional roof systems.

DISADVANTAGES OF FALSE CEILING

  • The most worrying aspect of having a false ceiling would be pests. They can get through into the space between and can start their own breeding which might lead to a lot of trouble.
  • Also be careful while putting up decorations or hangings while you have a false ceiling in place. Make sure you know the strength and durability, do’s and don’ts with regard to your ceiling.
  • Lastly, the false ceiling would reduce the height of the ceiling considerably and hence do not install false ceiling unless you have a decent ceiling height.